Any ideas?
(Fibonacchi code):
Consider the sequence f_1 = 1,f_2 = 2,f_3 = 3,f_4 = 5,f_5 = 8,f_6 =13,f_7 = 21,…
1. Show that for any integer n, we can write it e dot f wheref=(f_1,f_2,…) and e=(e_1,e_2,…)
where e_i is 0 or 1. We say e is the code that represents n.
2. Show that the code of n is not unique for each n. But showthat codes that do not contain consecutive 1’s is unique for eachn. (This is called the Fibonacchi code)
Answer